by ugrant » Tue Sep 08, 2009 2:23 pm
I thought you guys were through commenting on this. I just thought there might be some folks who were gone for the Labor Day weekend that might like to take some shots at me, considering that's what most are doing rather than refuting anything I write with something of substance.
You guys have your panties in a knot over the 3.3% chance I am arguing about (the difference between 16.7 and 20.0).
What's more, in my earlier post about "bets" (probably a poor choice of an example, but it does make a point), my first bet is exactly in line with everything Coyote, Voovits, et al, are arguing - that there is a 1/6 chance of each column occurring. No more, no less, nothing influenced by a prior roll.
My second bet is where everyone gets upset - is there any value to "covering" the probability that a previous column does not duplicate? Why didn't anyone focus on that and show me why I'm wrong? Heck, it's only an additional .033 chance if there is value to it.
I do have a question for Coyote, assuming he isn't done commenting. He wrote earlier:
"With dice, each and every door might have a car behind it (1/27 chance) or none of the doors at all (8/27 chance), and so they are independent of one another."
Could you tell me what the 1/27 and 8/27 refer to?