by cummings2 » Tue Mar 07, 2006 3:31 am
Dean, I am really interested in your study, but I am bit slow and thick.
Let me see if I understand this, you took four complete leagues (48 teams) and you took from all those players the clutch data you described, roughly about 432-450 cases, obviously, some cases it's the same player in a diffferent league, given that its only four leagues, the info for each player can not be repeted more than 4 times, that is there can be no more than 4 sets of data for any given player. So you collected the info of no less than than 108 players.
Then you determined for each of those no less than 108 players the % of PAs where the clutch came into play. This is for lack of a better name the Overall Clutch Percentage (OCP) for the given player.
Then for each player you correlated the ammount of times they hit, 1st, 2nd, 3rd, etc... in the lineup.
So, to simplify it and using a singular example, you collected Jim Thome's info and came up with his Overall Clutch Performance.
Then you calculated the % of times he batted 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, etc... for a lack of a better term I'll call this the Individual Lineup Percentage (ILP)
THEN you correlated the OCP and ILP the result of that correlation is what you listed?
Did I get this right?
So, lets say that in this ficticious case Thome's OCP was 15%, that is that 15 percent of his PA were clutch opportunities:
If Thome were to bat 5th the % of PAs with clutch in play would be 28?
and If Thome bats 9th the % of PAs with clutch in play would be 0?
So lets say a Hitter will have 600 PAs, in this case I can expect 128 PAs to be clutch opportunities, in other words 64 rolls on the hitters card to be clutch situations?
If I did get this right and I just repeated what you initially wrote I apologize but I want to make sure I understand before I comment.
Very interesting Dean.